Why is the Lord called, and calls himself, "the Son of Man"?

Throughout the scriptures, the Lord frequently refers to himself as "the Son of Man"?

I've been re-reading the New Testament and have seen this reference frequently, most recently this morning, and I thought I should share an insight I had several years ago.

There may be more eloquent, doctrinal discourses about this, but here is the simple answer, found in the Pearl of Great Price, chapter 6, verse 57, of the Book of Moses:

57 Wherefore teach it unto your children, that all men, everywhere, must repent, or they can in nowise inherit the kingdom of God, for no unclean thing can dwell there, or dwell in his presence; for, in the language of Adam, Man of Holiness is his name, and the name of his Only Begotten is the Son of Man, even Jesus Christ, a righteous Judge, who shall come in the meridian of time.

Did you catch it?

In the language of Adam, God the Father's name means "Man of Holiness."

Traditionally, in a patriarchal-oriented society, children are referred to as being the "son" or "daughter" of a person. For example, if John had a son, the son might be referred to as the "son of John."

Over the years, particularly in Western culture, this got changed to "John's son" and then evolved to "Johnson."

When the Lord is called the "Son of Man" it simply means he is the literal Son of the Father, or the Son of the Man of Holiness.